Which statement about ovarian clear cell carcinoma is correct?
- A It shows high response rates to platinum-based chemotherapy
- B It is strongly associated with antecedent endometriosis ✓
- C It is bilateral in the majority of cases at presentation
- D It carries the same molecular profile as high-grade serous carcinoma
Correct answer: B. It is strongly associated with antecedent endometriosis
Explanation
Clear cell carcinoma arises from endometriosis in a substantial proportion of cases, shares ARID1B mutations with endometrioid carcinoma, and characteristically shows hobnail cells lining tubulocystic spaces. It is relatively platinum resistant and carries a worse prognosis than high-grade serous disease at equivalent stage, killing option A. It is usually unilateral and molecularly distinct from TP53-mutant high-grade serous carcinoma, so options C and D are wrong.
Reference: Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease, 10th ed.
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