Obstetrics & Gynaecology · Ovarian Tumors (Benign, Malignant, Classification)

A 17-year-old girl presents with primary amenorrhoea. She is tall with eunuchoid proportions, has absent breast development and scanty pubic hair, and ultrasound shows bilateral streak gonads with a normal uterus. Karyotype is 46,XY and FSH is markedly elevated. What is the essential next step in her management beyond hormone replacement?

  • A Gonadal biopsy alone, reserving surgery for histological confirmation of neoplasia
  • B Annual tumour marker surveillance with gonadectomy deferred until after puberty
  • C Prophylactic bilateral gonadectomy because of gonadoblastoma and dysgerminoma risk
  • D Ovulation induction after oestrogen priming to achieve fertility
Correct answer: C. Prophylactic bilateral gonadectomy because of gonadoblastoma and dysgerminoma risk

Explanation

In 46,XY complete gonadal dysgenesis, the intra-abdominal streak gonads carry a substantial lifetime risk of gonadoblastoma, which frequently transforms into dysgerminoma. Standard practice is therefore bilateral prophylactic gonadectomy once the karyotype confirms Y chromosomal material, followed by long-term oestrogen-progestin replacement. Deferring surgery or merely biopsying leaves the patient exposed to a preventable malignant event. These streak gonads contain no functional follicles, so fertility through them is impossible.

Reference: Jeffcoate's Principles of Gynaecology, 9th ed.

High-yield for: NEET PGINI-CETNExTFMGEUSMLEPLABMRCP

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