Obstetrics & Gynaecology · Hypertensive Disorders in Pregnancy (Pre-eclampsia, Eclampsia)

A 27-year-old woman delivered vaginally at 36 weeks for severe pre-eclampsia. On postpartum day 3, she develops severe headache and tonic-clonic seizures. Which statement about postpartum eclampsia is correct?

  • A Postpartum eclampsia is defined as seizures occurring after 48 hours of delivery only
  • B Magnesium sulfate is indicated for seizure prophylaxis in this patient
  • C Eclampsia after 48 hours postpartum is rare and always indicates an underlying structural brain lesion
  • D Postpartum eclampsia occurs in fewer than 5% of all eclampsia cases
Correct answer: B. Magnesium sulfate is indicated for seizure prophylaxis in this patient

Explanation

Postpartum eclampsia accounts for approximately 25% of all eclampsia cases and can occur up to 4 weeks postpartum. Magnesium sulfate remains the treatment of choice for eclamptic seizures regardless of timing. The 48-hour cutoff is arbitrary; eclampsia can occur later. While structural lesions should be considered, eclampsia itself is a recognized postpartum complication and does not always indicate another pathology.

Reference: Williams Obstetrics, 26th ed.

High-yield for: NEET PGINI-CETNExTFMGEUSMLEPLABMRCP

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