Obstetrics & Gynaecology · Hypertensive Disorders in Pregnancy (Pre-eclampsia, Eclampsia)

A 28-year-old primigravida at 36 weeks develops hypertension (148/96 mmHg on two occasions) with mild proteinuria but denies headache, visual symptoms, or epigastric pain. Laboratory tests including platelets, creatinine, and liver enzymes are all normal. Which of the following is the CORRECT diagnosis and management plan?

  • A Gestational hypertension; deliver at 37 weeks
  • B Pre-eclampsia without severe features; deliver at 37 weeks
  • C Pre-eclampsia with severe features; deliver immediately
  • D Chronic hypertension superimposed pre-eclampsia; deliver at 34 weeks
Correct answer: B. Pre-eclampsia without severe features; deliver at 37 weeks

Explanation

Pre-eclampsia without severe features is defined as hypertension (≥140/90 mmHg on two occasions) plus proteinuria after 20 weeks, with absence of severe-feature criteria. Current guidelines recommend delivery at 37 0/7 weeks for pre-eclampsia without severe features. This distinguishes it from gestational hypertension, which lacks proteinuria or other diagnostic criteria for pre-eclampsia.

Reference: Williams Obstetrics, 26th ed.

High-yield for: NEET PGINI-CETNExTFMGEUSMLEPLABMRCP

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