A 24-year-old primigravida with no prior medical illness is diagnosed with pre-eclampsia at 34 weeks. Her mother had severe pre-eclampsia in her first pregnancy. Which of the following is the strongest independent risk factor for the development of pre-eclampsia in this patient?
- A Primigravida status
- B Maternal age below 25 years
- C Family history of pre-eclampsia in a first-degree relative ✓
- D Absence of chronic hypertension
Correct answer: C. Family history of pre-eclampsia in a first-degree relative
Explanation
Family history of pre-eclampsia in a first-degree relative increases the risk approximately 2- to 5-fold, making it one of the strongest independent risk factors. Primigravida status is also a risk factor but is less weighted than a positive family history. Maternal age below 25 is not a risk factor; advanced maternal age (>35-40 years) is. Absence of chronic hypertension is protective, not a risk factor.
Reference: Williams Obstetrics, 26th ed.
High-yield for: NEET PGINI-CETNExTFMGEUSMLEPLABMRCP
Written and medically reviewed by the StethoPrep medical team.