A 32-year-old woman at 38 weeks develops eclampsia. After controlling seizures with magnesium sulfate, her cervix is 4 cm dilated, 70% effaced, cephalic presentation at -1 station with a reactive CTG. What is the most appropriate management?
- A Immediate cesarean section
- B Await spontaneous labour with continuous monitoring
- C Augment labour with oxytocin and aim for vaginal delivery ✓
- D MRI brain before deciding mode of delivery
Correct answer: C. Augment labour with oxytocin and aim for vaginal delivery
Explanation
With a favourable cervix and reactive fetal heart tracing after seizure control, augmentation of labour aiming for vaginal delivery is appropriate in eclampsia, as cesarean section carries additional anaesthetic risks in this setting. Immediate cesarean is not mandated if labour can be augmented safely. Awaiting spontaneous labour prolongs exposure to risk. MRI is not required before delivery decision.
Reference: Williams Obstetrics, 26th ed.
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Written and medically reviewed by the StethoPrep medical team.