Community Medicine (PSM) · Family Planning and Contraceptives

A 24-year-old nulliparous woman requests a contraceptive implant. The etonogestrel single-rod implant (Implanon/Nexplanon) provides effective contraception for how many years?

A 7 years
B 5 years
C 3 years ✓
D 2 years

Correct answer: C. 3 years

Explanation

The etonogestrel single-rod subdermal implant is approved for 3 years of use. It releases 68 mg of etonorgestrel and has a Pearl Index of approximately 0.05 per 100 woman-years, making it one of the most effective reversible contraceptives available.

Reference: Williams Obstetrics, 26th ed.

High-yield for: NEET PGINI-CETNExTFMGEUSMLEPLABMRCP

Written and medically reviewed by the StethoPrep medical team.

Want to test yourself?

Create a free account for timed mock tests, mistake tracking, and FSRS spaced-repetition revision across 43,000+ MCQs.

Start free → Log in

More Family Planning and Contraceptives MCQs

A 28-year-old woman who delivered 6 weeks ago is exclusively breastfeeding her baby on demand, both day and night, and her menstrual periods have not resumed. She is asking about contraceptive options. Regarding the Lactational Amenorrhea Method (LAM), which of the following statements is CORRECT?
Cu-T 380A (copper-T IUD) prevents pregnancy primarily by which of the following mechanisms?
The Pearl Index (PI) for combined oral contraceptive pills (COCPs) with PERFECT use is approximately:
Lactational Amenorrhea Method (LAM) is >98% effective ONLY when all three criteria are simultaneously met. Which set correctly states these criteria?
Emergency contraceptive pill (Levonorgestrel 1.5 mg) is most effective if taken within 72 hours of unprotected intercourse. Its primary mechanism of action is:
The failure rate of the Copper-T 380A (CuT 380A) IUD as measured by the Pearl Index under typical use is approximately:
The 'perfect use' failure rate of the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) is 0.3 per 100 woman-years, while the 'typical use' failure rate is 9 per 100 woman-years. This discrepancy is primarily attributed to:
A 35-year-old woman requests post-coital emergency contraception 60 hours after unprotected intercourse. Which method has the highest efficacy at this time point?

See all Family Planning and Contraceptives MCQs →