A 32-year-old man undergoes no-scalpel vasectomy (NSV) for permanent sterilization. He asks when the procedure becomes effective for contraception. Which statement is correct?

• A He is sterile immediately after the procedure
• B He is sterile after 3 consecutive semen analyses showing oligozoospermia
• C He is sterile after 6 weeks regardless of ejaculation frequency
• D He is sterile after 20 ejaculations or 3 months, whichever is later, confirmed by azoospermia ✓

Explanation

After vasectomy, residual sperm remain distal to the occlusion site. Sterility is achieved only after clearance of these sperm, which requires approximately 20 ejaculations or 3 months. A semen analysis confirming azoospermia is recommended before relying on the method. Immediate sterility is a common misconception.

Reference: Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 27th ed.

High-yield for: NEET PGINI-CETNExTFMGEUSMLEPLABMRCP

Written and medically reviewed by the StethoPrep medical team.