A 42-year-old man is found to have a 3.5 cm solid, enhancing renal mass on CT, confined to the kidney with no lymphadenopathy or metastasis. The contralateral kidney is normal. What is the preferred surgical management?
- A Radical nephrectomy
- B Radiofrequency ablation
- C Partial nephrectomy (nephron-sparing surgery) ✓
- D Active surveillance with serial imaging
Correct answer: C. Partial nephrectomy (nephron-sparing surgery)
Explanation
For T1a renal masses (<4 cm), partial nephrectomy is the preferred approach when technically feasible, as it preserves renal function without compromising oncologic outcomes. Radical nephrectomy risks future chronic kidney disease. Ablation is reserved for patients unfit for surgery. Surveillance is for elderly or comorbid patients with small masses.
Reference: Campbell-Walsh-Wein Urology, 12th ed.
High-yield for: NEET PGINI-CETNExTFMGEUSMLEPLABMRCP
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