Surgery · Urological Surgery (Kidneys, Bladder, Prostate, Urethra, Testis)

A 32-year-old man presents with a 2-month history of a painless left testicular mass. AFP is 380 ng/mL, beta-hCG is normal, LDH is normal. CT shows retroperitoneal lymphadenopathy up to 2.8 cm. Post-orchidectomy histology shows pure yolk sac tumor (non-seminomatous GCT). How is this staged and what is the preferred treatment?

  • A Stage IIC; BEP × 4 cycles
  • B Stage IIB; BEP × 3 cycles or 4 cycles EP depending on S category
  • C Stage IS (rising AFP post-orchidectomy); BEP × 3 cycles
  • D Stage IIA; surveillance alone is appropriate
Correct answer: B. Stage IIB; BEP × 3 cycles or 4 cycles EP depending on S category

Explanation

NSGCT with retroperitoneal nodes 2–5 cm is Stage IIB. AFP elevation plus retroperitoneal adenopathy confirms systemic disease. The international prognostic classification (IGCCCG) and EAU guidelines recommend BEP × 3 cycles for good-prognosis Stage IIB NSGCT, or 4 cycles of EP as equivalent for good-prognosis group. Stage IIC is nodes >5 cm. Stage IS (elevated markers after orchidectomy with no radiographic metastases) also mandates chemotherapy, not surveillance, because of high relapse risk. Stage IIA (nodes <2 cm) may be managed with primary RPLND or surveillance in selected patients.

Reference: Bailey & Love's Short Practice of Surgery, 27th ed.

High-yield for: NEET PGINI-CETNExTFMGEUSMLEPLABMRCP

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