A 75-year-old woman presents with a small, firm, tender lump in the right groin just below and lateral to the pubic tubercle. There is no bowel obstruction. She has a body mass index of 28. This presentation is MOST consistent with which type of hernia?
- A Direct inguinal hernia
- B Femoral hernia ✓
- C Indirect inguinal hernia
- D Obturator hernia
Correct answer: B. Femoral hernia
Explanation
Femoral hernias emerge through the femoral ring, below and lateral to the pubic tubercle (inguinal hernias are above and medial). They are more common in older women (narrower femoral canal), have a high risk of strangulation, and often present as a small, firm, tender lump at the femoral triangle. The position below the inguinal ligament and lateral to the pubic tubercle distinguishes a femoral from an inguinal hernia.
Reference: Bailey & Love's Short Practice of Surgery, 27th ed.
High-yield for: NEET PGINI-CETNExTFMGEUSMLEPLABMRCP
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