A 70-year-old woman presents with a tender irreducible lump below and lateral to the pubic tubercle. On examination, the lump is below and lateral to the pubic tubercle and medial to the femoral vein. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A Direct inguinal hernia
- B Femoral hernia ✓
- C Indirect inguinal hernia
- D Saphena varix
Correct answer: B. Femoral hernia
Explanation
A femoral hernia passes through the femoral canal medial to the femoral vein and below the inguinal ligament, presenting as a lump below and lateral to the pubic tubercle. It is more common in women due to a wider pelvis. Femoral hernias have the highest strangulation rate of all groin hernias due to the rigid neck of the femoral canal. Inguinal hernias (direct and indirect) emerge above the inguinal ligament and are medial to the femoral vessels.
Reference: Bailey & Love's Short Practice of Surgery, 27th ed.
High-yield for: NEET PGINI-CETNExTFMGEUSMLEPLABMRCP
Written and medically reviewed by the StethoPrep medical team.