A 70-year-old woman presents with a small, tender lump in the right groin below the inguinal ligament and medial to the femoral vein. It is irreducible. This represents a femoral hernia. What percentage of femoral hernias present with strangulation at initial presentation compared to inguinal hernias?
- A 5% vs 1%
- B 10% vs 10%
- C 40% vs 3% ✓
- D 60% vs 15%
Correct answer: C. 40% vs 3%
Explanation
Femoral hernias have a much higher rate of strangulation (~40%) compared to inguinal hernias (~3%), because the femoral canal has a narrow, rigid neck bounded by the inguinal ligament anteriorly, the pectineal ligament posteriorly, the lacunar ligament medially, and the femoral vein laterally — leaving little room for expansion. This is why all femoral hernias, regardless of symptoms, should be repaired promptly on an elective basis.
Reference: Bailey & Love's Short Practice of Surgery, 27th ed.
High-yield for: NEET PGINI-CETNExTFMGEUSMLEPLABMRCP
Written and medically reviewed by the StethoPrep medical team.