A 28-year-old woman presents with bilateral, bloody nipple discharge without a palpable mass. Ductoscopy reveals a small, pedunculated lesion within a major subareolar duct. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A Duct ectasia
- B Invasive ductal carcinoma
- C Intraductal papilloma ✓
- D Fibrocystic disease
Correct answer: C. Intraductal papilloma
Explanation
Intraductal papilloma is the most common cause of spontaneous, unilateral, bloody nipple discharge in women of reproductive age. It is a benign, pedunculated lesion typically located in a major subareolar duct. Duct ectasia causes greenish or cheesy discharge, while carcinoma is less common in this age group and usually presents with a mass.
Reference: Bailey and Love's Short Practice of Surgery, 28th ed.
High-yield for: NEET PGINI-CETNExTFMGEUSMLEPLABMRCP
Written and medically reviewed by the StethoPrep medical team.