A 60-year-old postmenopausal woman is found to have T2N1M0 invasive ductal carcinoma of the breast. Which TNM staging corresponds to this finding?
- A Stage IIB ✓
- B Stage IIA
- C Stage IIIA
- D Stage IIIB
Correct answer: A. Stage IIB
Explanation
T2 (tumour 2-5 cm) with N1 (1-3 ipsilateral axillary nodes) and M0 classifies as Stage IIB according to the AJCC staging system used in Bailey & Love. Stage IIA is T1N1 or T2N0. Stage IIIA includes T3N1 or T0-3N2. Accurate staging guides decisions on adjuvant radiotherapy and systemic therapy.
Reference: Bailey & Love's Short Practice of Surgery, 27th ed.
High-yield for: NEET PGINI-CETNExTFMGEUSMLEPLABMRCP
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