Which statement about carcinoma of the male breast is correct?
- A It constitutes about 10% of all breast cancers and peaks in the third decade
- B It is strongly associated with BRCA1 mutation but rarely with BRCA2
- C It accounts for approximately 1% of breast cancers, occurs at a later average age than in women, and is usually hormone receptor positive ✓
- D Gynaecomastia is a proven premalignant condition requiring routine prophylactic subcutaneous mastectomy
Correct answer: C. It accounts for approximately 1% of breast cancers, occurs at a later average age than in women, and is usually hormone receptor positive
Explanation
Male breast cancer represents roughly 1% of breast carcinomas, presents at an older median age than female disease, and the large majority are ER positive, making endocrine therapy central to management. BRCA2 mutation confers a much stronger risk than BRCA1, which eliminates option B. Gynaecomastia is benign and not considered premalignant, so prophylactic surgery is never indicated. The peak incidence is in the sixth decade or later, not the third.
Reference: Schwartz's Principles of Surgery, 11th ed.
High-yield for: NEET PGINI-CETNExTFMGEUSMLEPLABMRCP
Written and medically reviewed by the StethoPrep medical team.