A 40-year-old woman undergoing biopsy for microcalcifications is found incidentally to have lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS) in the specimen. Which statement about LCIS is correct?
- A It is a marker of increased risk for subsequent carcinoma in either breast rather than an obligate precursor ✓
- B It requires re-excision to achieve clear margins
- C It commonly presents as a palpable firm lump
- D It is almost always ER-negative and HER2-positive
Correct answer: A. It is a marker of increased risk for subsequent carcinoma in either breast rather than an obligate precursor
Explanation
Classic LCIS is a risk marker indicating roughly a 20 to 30 percent lifetime risk of subsequent invasive carcinoma, which may arise in either breast and may be ductal or lobular in type. It is virtually always an incidental histological finding, never forming a palpable mass or characteristic imaging change, so margins are not pursued. Pleomorphic LCIS behaves more aggressively, but classic LCIS needs observation and risk reduction such as tamoxifen.
Reference: Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease, 10th ed.
High-yield for: NEET PGINI-CETNExTFMGEUSMLEPLABMRCP
Written and medically reviewed by the StethoPrep medical team.