A 58-year-old man presents with a hard, fixed subareolar mass with overlying skin ulceration. Core biopsy shows invasive ductal carcinoma, ER-positive. Which statement regarding male breast cancer is correct?
- A Invasive lobular carcinoma is the commonest histological subtype in men
- B BRCA1 mutation confers a higher lifetime risk than BRCA2
- C Approximately 85% of male breast cancers are ER-positive, and BRCA2 mutation carriers have markedly elevated risk ✓
- D Gynaecomastia is a premalignant lesion that routinely progresses to carcinoma
Correct answer: C. Approximately 85% of male breast cancers are ER-positive, and BRCA2 mutation carriers have markedly elevated risk
Explanation
Male breast cancer accounts for under 1% of breast cancers, arises almost always in the subareolar region, and is invasive ductal histologically because the male breast lacks terminal lobules, making invasive lobular carcinoma essentially unreported in men. Around 85% are hormone receptor positive. BRCA2 carries a far higher male breast cancer risk than BRCA1. Gynaecomastia is benign hyperplasia, not a recognised premalignant condition, though both may coexist.
Reference: Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease, 10th ed.
High-yield for: NEET PGINI-CETNExTFMGEUSMLEPLABMRCP
Written and medically reviewed by the StethoPrep medical team.