A 62-year-old man presents with a 2 cm subareolar breast mass with nipple retraction. Core biopsy confirms invasive ductal carcinoma. There is no palpable axillary lymphadenopathy. What is the most appropriate surgical management?

• A Radical mastectomy
• B Modified radical mastectomy with axillary dissection
• C Breast conservation surgery with sentinel node biopsy
• D Simple mastectomy with sentinel lymph node biopsy ✓

Explanation

Male breast cancer typically presents as a central subareolar mass with nipple involvement. Simple mastectomy with sentinel lymph node biopsy is the standard treatment. Modified radical mastectomy is not routinely needed unless axillary nodes are clinically positive. Breast conservation is rarely feasible in men due to small breast volume and central tumor location.

Reference: Bailey and Love's Short Practice of Surgery, 27th ed.

High-yield for: NEET PGINI-CETNExTFMGEUSMLEPLABMRCP

Written and medically reviewed by the StethoPrep medical team.