A 28-year-old woman presents with bilateral, bloody nipple discharge without any palpable mass. Ductography shows an intraductal filling defect. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A Duct ectasia
- B Invasive ductal carcinoma
- C Intraductal papilloma ✓
- D Fibrocystic disease
Correct answer: C. Intraductal papilloma
Explanation
Intraductal papilloma is the most common cause of bloody nipple discharge in a young woman without a palpable mass. It is a benign lesion but requires excision to rule out malignancy. Duct ectasia typically causes a greenish or cheesy discharge, while carcinoma is less likely in this age group without a mass.
Reference: Bailey and Love's Short Practice of Surgery, 28th ed.
High-yield for: NEET PGINI-CETNExTFMGEUSMLEPLABMRCP
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