Pathology · Female Genital and Breast Pathology

Which ovarian tumor is most commonly associated with Meigs syndrome?

A Mucinous cystadenoma
B Granulosa cell tumor
C Fibroma ✓
D Brenner tumor

Correct answer: C. Fibroma

Explanation

Meigs syndrome consists of an ovarian fibroma, ascites, and hydrothorax. The effusions resolve after tumor removal. Granulosa cell tumors can produce ascites but are not part of Meigs syndrome. Mucinous cystadenomas and Brenner tumors are not associated with this paraneoplastic phenomenon.

Reference: Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease, 10th ed.

High-yield for: NEET PGINI-CETNExTFMGEUSMLEPLABMRCP

Written and medically reviewed by the StethoPrep medical team.

Want to test yourself?

Create a free account for timed mock tests, mistake tracking, and FSRS spaced-repetition revision across 43,000+ MCQs.

Start free → Log in

More Female Genital and Breast Pathology MCQs

A 45-year-old woman is found on routine mammography to have microcalcifications. Biopsy reveals atypical ductal hyperplasia (ADH). Compared to women without ADH, her relative risk of developing invasive breast cancer is approximately:
A 35-year-old woman has a cervical biopsy showing dysplastic cells confined to the lower two-thirds of the epithelium without surface maturation. HPV genotyping shows high-risk HPV 16. This is best classified as:
The most common histological type of ovarian carcinoma arising from high-grade serous tubal intraepithelial carcinoma (STIC) of the fimbriated end of the fallopian tube, with TP53 and BRCA1/2 mutations, is:
Paget disease of the nipple presents with eczematous skin changes and is characterized histologically by large cells with clear cytoplasm within the epidermis. These intraepidermal Paget cells stain positive for:
A 55-year-old postmenopausal woman has a 2.5 cm breast lump. Core biopsy shows infiltrating lobular carcinoma (ILC). Which molecular alteration is the hallmark of ILC and explains its characteristic 'Indian file' growth pattern and diffuse infiltration without forming a mass?
A 30-year-old woman has a 3 cm vulvar lesion with VIN III (high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion). HPV typing shows HPV-16 positive. Which protein product of HPV-16 is primarily responsible for p16 overexpression seen on IHC of this lesion?
A 35-year-old BRCA1-positive woman elects for risk-reducing salpingo-oophorectomy (RRSO). Pathological examination of the fallopian tube using the SEE-FIM (sectioning and extensively examining the fimbriated end) protocol reveals a serous tubal intraepithelial carcinoma (STIC) at the fimbria. This finding is clinically significant because:
A 55-year-old postmenopausal woman has a breast mass. Core biopsy shows infiltrating carcinoma with tubule formation in >75% of the tumor, mild nuclear pleomorphism, and <5 mitoses/10 HPF. Nottingham grading would assign this tumor a grade of:

See all Female Genital and Breast Pathology MCQs →