Pathology · Female Genital and Breast Pathology

A 34-year-old woman reports a single episode of blood-stained nipple discharge from one breast. Examination reveals a small, discrete subareolar nodule. Excision biopsy shows arborizing papillary fronds composed of fibrovascular cores covered by a double layer of cuboidal to columnar cells within a dilated duct. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  • A Solitary intraductal papilloma
  • B Encapsulated papillary carcinoma
  • C Juvenile fibroadenoma
  • D Ductal carcinoma in situ, papillary pattern
Correct answer: A. Solitary intraductal papilloma

Explanation

Solitary intraductal papilloma is the classic cause of serosanguineous nipple discharge in a premenopausal woman and presents as a small subareolar lesion. It consists of papillary fronds with a benign two-cell layer (epithelium plus myoepithelium) on fibrovascular cores. The presence of a preserved myoepithelial layer distinguishes it from papillary carcinoma, which lacks myoepithelial cells and occurs in older women.

Reference: Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease, 10th ed.

High-yield for: NEET PGINI-CETNExTFMGEUSMLEPLABMRCP

Written and medically reviewed by the StethoPrep medical team.

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