A 52-year-old postmenopausal woman presents with abnormal vaginal bleeding. Pelvic exam reveals a solid, yellowish ovarian mass. Endometrial biopsy shows endometrial hyperplasia. Serum inhibin is elevated. Which ovarian tumor is most likely?

• A Krukenberg tumor
• B Dysgerminoma
• C High-grade serous carcinoma
• D Granulosa cell tumor (adult type) ✓

Explanation

Adult granulosa cell tumor is a sex cord-stromal tumor that secretes estrogen, causing endometrial hyperplasia and postmenopausal bleeding. It produces inhibin (a useful IHC marker). Histology shows Call-Exner bodies. Krukenberg is a metastatic signet ring carcinoma, usually from stomach. Dysgerminoma occurs in young women and does not produce hormones.

Reference: Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease, 10th ed.

High-yield for: NEET PGINI-CETNExTFMGEUSMLEPLABMRCP

Written and medically reviewed by the StethoPrep medical team.