Pathology · Female Genital and Breast Pathology

A 32-year-old woman with a BRCA1 germline mutation undergoes risk-reducing salpingo-oophorectomy. The pathologist performs a SEE-FIM (Sectioning and Extensively Examining the Fimbria) protocol and identifies a microscopic lesion: p53 signature in fimbrial tubal epithelium followed by serous tubal intraepithelial carcinoma (STIC). STIC represents the putative origin of which cancer?

  • A Primary peritoneal carcinoma exclusively
  • B Clear cell carcinoma of the ovary
  • C Low-grade serous carcinoma with KRAS mutations
  • D High-grade serous carcinoma of the ovary, fallopian tube, and peritoneum
Correct answer: D. High-grade serous carcinoma of the ovary, fallopian tube, and peritoneum

Explanation

The current evidence strongly supports the distal fallopian tube fimbriae as the origin of high-grade serous carcinoma (HGSC) of the ovary, fallopian tube, and peritoneum — the most common and lethal form of ovarian cancer. The proposed progression is: p53 mutation in tubal secretory cells → p53 signature (secretory cell clusters with p53 mutation) → STIC (serous tubal intraepithelial carcinoma with TP53 mutation, high Ki-67) → invasive HGSC. BRCA1/BRCA2 mutations predispose specifically to this pathway. SEE-FIM protocol maximizes detection of STIC during risk-reducing salpingo-oophorectomy. Low-grade serous carcinomas arise from a different pathway (serous borderline tumors, KRAS/BRAF mutations).

Reference: Robbins & Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease, 10th ed.

High-yield for: NEET PGINI-CETNExTFMGEUSMLEPLABMRCP

Written and medically reviewed by the StethoPrep medical team.

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