A 24-year-old woman is found to have a persistent high-risk HPV 16 infection on routine screening. Her Pap smear is normal. She has never been vaccinated against HPV. She asks about vaccination now. Which statement is correct regarding HPV vaccination in this clinical scenario?

• A Vaccination is not indicated as she is already HPV 16 positive
• B Vaccination is indicated only after surgical treatment of CIN
• C Vaccination will accelerate clearance of her current HPV 16 infection
• D Vaccination may still protect against other high-risk HPV types not yet acquired ✓

Explanation

HPV vaccination is prophylactic, not therapeutic. It does not treat existing infections or accelerate clearance. However, vaccination in a woman already positive for HPV 16 can still provide protection against other high-risk HPV types (such as 18, 31, 33, 45) included in the 9-valent vaccine that she has not yet acquired. This is why vaccination is recommended up to age 45 regardless of prior HPV exposure. The benefit lies in preventing future infections with other oncogenic types, not in modifying the course of the existing HPV 16 infection.

Reference: Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 27th ed.

High-yield for: NEET PGINI-CETNExTFMGEUSMLEPLABMRCP

Written and medically reviewed by the StethoPrep medical team.