Microbiology · Virology (Hepatitis, Herpes, HIV, Arboviruses, Respiratory Viruses)

A 28-year-old from Rajasthan with recent Aedes aegypti-endemic area exposure develops fever, severe joint pain (arthralgia), and a maculopapular rash on day 3. RT-PCR is positive for Chikungunya virus. Which statement about Chikungunya is CORRECT?

  • A Chikungunya causes haemorrhagic fever with shock syndrome similar to dengue (thrombocytopenia and plasma leakage)
  • B Chikungunya is transmitted by Culex quinquefasciatus mosquito, not Aedes
  • C IgM antibodies for Chikungunya appear only after 3 weeks and are not useful for acute diagnosis
  • D Chikungunya virus is an alphavirus (Togaviridae family) — arthralgia is typically severe, debilitating, and may persist for months to years (chronic chikungunya arthritis)
Correct answer: D. Chikungunya virus is an alphavirus (Togaviridae family) — arthralgia is typically severe, debilitating, and may persist for months to years (chronic chikungunya arthritis)

Explanation

Chikungunya virus is an RNA alphavirus (family Togaviridae) transmitted by Aedes aegypti and Aedes albopictus mosquitoes. Its hallmark is severe, symmetrical polyarthralgia/arthritis (chikungunya means 'to bend up' in the Makonde language) affecting small joints of hands, wrists, ankles; this can persist for months to years as chronic inflammatory arthritis, distinguishing it from dengue. Dengue (flavivirus) causes haemorrhagic fever and plasma leakage; chikungunya does not. Chikungunya IgM appears from day 3–5 of illness and is detectable during the acute phase, making IgM ELISA useful for acute diagnosis after viraemia wanes.

Reference: Ananthanarayan & Paniker's Textbook of Microbiology, 11th ed.

High-yield for: NEET PGINI-CETNExTFMGEUSMLEPLABMRCP

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