Microbiology · Syndromic Diagnosis (CNS, Bloodstream, Respiratory, GI Infection Work-up)

A 19-year-old college student presents with high fever, headache, photophobia, and neck stiffness. CSF analysis: turbid, WBC 2,400/µL (95% neutrophils), protein 280 mg/dL, glucose 22 mg/dL (blood glucose 94 mg/dL). Gram stain shows gram-negative diplococci intracellularly. The most appropriate empiric antibiotic therapy is:

  • A Intravenous ampicillin + gentamicin
  • B Intravenous vancomycin + rifampicin
  • C Oral ciprofloxacin — Neisseria meningitidis is susceptible
  • D Intravenous ceftriaxone 2 g every 12 hours
Correct answer: D. Intravenous ceftriaxone 2 g every 12 hours

Explanation

Gram-negative intracellular diplococci in CSF with purulent meningitis in a young adult strongly indicate Neisseria meningitidis (meningococcal meningitis). Third-generation cephalosporins (ceftriaxone 2 g IV q12h or cefotaxime 2 g IV q4h) are the treatment of choice, providing excellent CSF penetration and activity against N. meningitidis. Ampicillin + gentamicin is used for neonatal meningitis (Listeria/GBS); vancomycin + rifampicin is for MRSA or penicillin-resistant pneumococcal meningitis; oral ciprofloxacin is used as post-exposure prophylaxis for contacts, not treatment.

Reference: Ananthanarayan & Paniker's Textbook of Microbiology, 11th ed.

High-yield for: NEET PGINI-CETNExTFMGEUSMLEPLABMRCP

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