Dermatology · STDs, Leprosy & Syphilis

A 30-year-old man presents with a small painless genital papule that healed unnoticed, followed by painful unilateral inguinal lymphadenopathy. Multiple matted nodes are separated by a horizontal furrow above and below Poupart ligament. Aspiration of a bubo yields sterile pus. What is the most likely causative agent?

  • A Chlamydia trachomatis serovars L1, L2 and L3
  • B Klebsiella granulomatis
  • C Haemophilus ducreyi
  • D Treponema pallidum
Correct answer: A. Chlamydia trachomatis serovars L1, L2 and L3

Explanation

The groove sign created by the inguinal ligament separating femoral from inguinal nodes is characteristic of lymphogranuloma venereum caused by A trachomatis biovar L1 to L3. The primary lesion is a transient painless herpetiform papule or ulcer. Chancroid produces a painful non-indurated ulcer with tender suppurative bubo but no groove sign, which eliminates option C. Donovanosis gives beefy red hypertrophic ulcers without bubo formation.

Reference: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 21st ed.

High-yield for: NEET PGINI-CETNExTFMGEUSMLEPLABMRCP

Written and medically reviewed by the StethoPrep medical team.

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