Sports Injuries MCQs

Orthopedics · 22 free questions with answers & explanations.

1. A 25-year-old cricketer complains of lateral elbow pain that is worsened by gripping the bat and resisted wrist extension. Tenderness is localised over the lateral epicondyle. There is no swelling or instability. The most likely diagnosis is:
2. A 22-year-old basketballer sustains a non-contact injury to the knee landing from a jump. He hears a 'pop' and the knee swells rapidly within 2 hours (hemarthrosis). MRI confirms complete ACL rupture. In ACL reconstruction, the gold standard graft choice for primary reconstruction in athletes is:
3. In the Lachman test for ACL injury, the test is performed with the knee at 20–30° of flexion rather than 90° (anterior drawer) because:
4. A 22-year-old football player gives a 'pop' sensation and immediate knee swelling after a non-contact deceleration injury. Lachman test is positive (Grade 2B — firm endpoint absent). MRI confirms an isolated ACL tear. He wants to return to high-level football. The most appropriate management is:
5. A 22-year-old footballer pivots acutely and hears a 'pop'. He develops rapid knee haemarthrosis and cannot bear weight. Lachman test is positive (grade II, soft end-point). MRI confirms ACL tear with bone bruising of the lateral femoral condyle and posterior lateral tibial plateau. This bone bruise pattern on MRI suggests which injury mechanism?
6. A 30-year-old athlete sustains complete Achilles tendon rupture confirmed on MRI. He is 28 years old, active, and wishes to return to sport. Comparing surgical versus conservative management, which statement is MOST supported by current evidence?
7. A 22-year-old football player sustains a non-contact deceleration injury with a 'pop' and immediate swelling. Lachman test is positive. ACL reconstruction is planned. Regarding graft choice, a bone-patellar tendon-bone (BTB) graft is preferred for which patient profile compared to a hamstring tendon graft?
8. Ottawa Ankle Rules define criteria to avoid unnecessary X-rays in acute ankle injuries. An X-ray is indicated if there is bony tenderness at which specific anatomical points?
9. A 22-year-old footballer sustains an ACL tear confirmed on MRI. Lachman's test is positive. The ACL graft choice for reconstruction that has the LOWEST donor-site morbidity and the fastest return to sport is:
10. A 22-year-old basketball player lands awkwardly and sustains a grade III lateral ankle sprain with ATFL and CFL rupture confirmed on stress X-ray (talar tilt >15°). What is the evidence-based management for an acute grade III ankle sprain?
11. A 22-year-old badminton player presents with medial knee pain after a twisting injury. McMurray's test is positive for the medial meniscus. MRI confirms a bucket-handle tear of the medial meniscus with a displaced fragment in the intercondylar notch. The patient has a locked knee with a 15° flexion block. What is the most appropriate management?
12. An MRI performed 6 weeks after an ACL rupture in a 25-year-old footballer shows complete ligament discontinuity. In ACL reconstruction, the graft most associated with donor-site morbidity at the patellar tendon but demonstrating the strongest structural properties is:
13. A 22-year-old female soccer player pivots and sustains a non-contact ACL injury. She later undergoes ACL reconstruction with a bone-patellar tendon-bone (BPTB) autograft. Which specific complication is MOST unique to the BPTB donor site compared to hamstring tendon graft harvest?
14. A 22-year-old footballer sustains a non-contact deceleration injury to the knee with an audible 'pop', immediate haemarthrosis, and a positive Lachman test. MRI confirms complete ACL rupture without concomitant meniscal or cartilage injury. He wants to return to competitive football. The recommended time to return to sport after ACL reconstruction is at least:
15. A 22-year-old football player sustains a non-contact pivoting injury with immediate swelling of the knee. The Lachman test is positive with a soft endpoint. MRI confirms a complete anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear with a lateral meniscus tear. For return to competitive football, the preferred graft for ACL reconstruction in a young athlete is:
16. A 25-year-old soccer player injures her knee and presents with a positive anterior drawer test, positive Lachman test, and a pivot-shift test. MRI confirms an ACL tear with a bone bruise at the lateral femoral condyle and posterolateral tibial plateau. The mechanism of injury responsible for this 'kissing contusion' pattern is:
17. In anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction, the double bundle technique attempts to reconstruct both the anteromedial (AM) and posterolateral (PL) bundles. The primary functional role of the posterolateral bundle is:
18. A 25-year-old footballer twists his knee and feels a 'pop' followed by acute haemarthrosis. Lachman's test is positive (2+). MRI confirms complete ACL tear with a concomitant bone bruise (contusion) at the lateral femoral condyle and posterolateral tibial plateau. The typical mechanism of injury causing this MRI pattern is:
19. A 28-year-old footballer sustains a knee injury with a valgus force. On examination, the anterior drawer and Lachman tests are positive. McMurray's test is also positive for a medial meniscal tear. The combination of ACL tear with medial meniscus and MCL injury is termed:
20. A 35-year-old tennis player has chronic lateral elbow pain, worse with resisted wrist extension and gripping. Tenderness is maximal at the origin of extensor carpi radialis brevis (ECRB) on the lateral epicondyle. The pathological process in this condition is best described as:
21. A 22-year-old female volleyball player develops anterior knee pain that is worse with descending stairs and prolonged sitting ('theatre sign'). Clinical examination reveals a positive Clarke's sign (patellar inhibition test) and tenderness along the medial patellar facet. The diagnosis is:
22. A 28-year-old male basketball player presents with medial knee pain and clicking after a twisting injury. McMurray's test is positive for medial meniscus pathology. MRI shows a vertical longitudinal tear of the medial meniscus extending into the posterior horn (bucket handle tear). The meniscus is displaced into the intercondylar notch. The preferred treatment is: