Obstetrics (Antenatal & Labour) MCQs

Obstetrics & Gynaecology · 6 free questions with answers & explanations.

1. A 28-year-old primigravida at 36 weeks of gestation presents for a routine antenatal visit. Her blood pressure is 118/74 mmHg. Ultrasound shows the fetus in a cephalic presentation with the fetal head engaged in the maternal pelvis. Which of the following pelvic shapes is MOST associated with a smooth vaginal delivery in a cephalic presentation?
2. A 32-year-old woman, G2P1, at 39 weeks gestation is in active labour. Cervical examination shows 6 cm dilatation, 80% effacement, and the fetal head at 0 station. Electronic fetal monitoring shows a baseline heart rate of 145 bpm with repetitive late decelerations and minimal variability. The most appropriate immediate management is:
3. A 24-year-old primigravida at 12 weeks gestation attends her first antenatal visit. She has no significant past medical history. Which of the following maternal serum markers is characteristically ELEVATED in Down syndrome (trisomy 21) when measured at 15–20 weeks gestation?
4. During a vaginal delivery, the baby's head delivers but the shoulders fail to deliver with routine axial traction. The McRoberts manoeuvre is performed without success. The next most appropriate step is:
5. A woman at 41+3 weeks gestation has a biophysical profile (BPP) score of 4/10. The score components are: non-stress test non-reactive, absent fetal breathing movements, absent gross body movements, and normal amniotic fluid index. The most appropriate management is:
6. A 30-year-old woman, G1P0, at 38 weeks gestation is noted to have a Bishop score of 3. She requires induction of labour for gestational hypertension. Which of the following agents is MOST appropriate for cervical ripening before induction?