Gynaecologic Oncology MCQs

Obstetrics & Gynaecology · 6 free questions with answers & explanations.

1. A 55-year-old postmenopausal woman undergoes total abdominal hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy for a uterine mass. Histopathology reveals endometrioid adenocarcinoma confined to the inner half of the myometrium with no lymphovascular space invasion and no cervical involvement. According to FIGO 2023 staging, this tumour is classified as:
2. A 62-year-old woman presents with a 5 cm right adnexal mass, bilateral pleural effusions, and massive ascites. CA-125 is 980 U/mL. Omentum biopsy reveals papillary serous adenocarcinoma. Peritoneal deposits are noted on CT in the upper abdomen. What is the FIGO stage and the cornerstone of management?
3. A 30-year-old woman is referred after a colposcopy-directed biopsy confirms CIN 3 (high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion). She is nulliparous and wishes to preserve fertility. The MOST appropriate treatment is:
4. A 65-year-old woman presents with postmenopausal vulvar pruritus, a raised, whitish hyperkeratotic lesion on the right labium majus, and an enlarged right inguinal lymph node. Biopsy confirms squamous cell carcinoma of the vulva. Staging workup reveals a 3.5 cm lesion with unilateral inguinal nodal involvement. According to FIGO staging, this is classified as:
5. A 25-year-old woman undergoes left salpingo-oophorectomy for a 6 cm ovarian mass. Histopathology reveals a dysgerminoma confined to the left ovary with no capsular rupture and negative peritoneal cytology. Contralateral ovary and uterus are normal. The MOST appropriate next management step is:
6. A 48-year-old woman presents with abnormal uterine bleeding. Hysteroscopy and curettage reveals a uterine tumour. Histopathology shows spindle-shaped cells with >10 mitoses per 10 high-power fields and moderate nuclear atypia, without a distinct epithelial component. The MOST likely diagnosis is: