Surgery · Vascular Surgery (Arterial, Venous, Lymphatic Disorders)

A 62-year-old woman on unfractionated heparin for deep vein thrombosis develops a platelet count drop from 280,000 to 90,000 over 5 days. She has new painful cyanosis of the left great toe. What is the most appropriate immediate management?

  • A Continue heparin and add warfarin
  • B Administer platelet transfusion
  • C Switch to low molecular weight heparin
  • D Stop all heparin and start a non-heparin anticoagulant such as argatroban
Correct answer: D. Stop all heparin and start a non-heparin anticoagulant such as argatroban

Explanation

This presentation is classic for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia with thrombosis (HITT). All heparin must be stopped immediately, and a non-heparin anticoagulant such as argatroban or fondaparinux must be started because HITT carries a high thrombotic risk. LMWH cross-reacts with HIT antibodies and is contraindicated. Platelet transfusion may worsen thrombosis and is avoided.

Reference: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 21st ed.

High-yield for: NEET PGINI-CETNExTFMGEUSMLEPLABMRCP

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