A 35-year-old man falls from height. He has severe back pain and weakness of both lower limbs. X-ray shows an L1 compression fracture with retropulsion of bone into the spinal canal. What is the most appropriate management?
- A Surgical decompression and stabilization ✓
- B MRI spine as the next step
- C Conservative management with bed rest
- D TLSO brace application
Correct answer: A. Surgical decompression and stabilization
Explanation
C burst fracture with neurological deficit and retropulsion of bone fragments into the spinal canal is an absolute indication for surgical decompression and stabilization. Conservative management is for stable burst fractures without neurological deficit. MRI may supplement evaluation but should not delay surgery when neurological compromise exists.
Reference: Rockwood and Green's Fractures in Adults, 9th ed.
High-yield for: NEET PGINI-CETNExTFMGEUSMLEPLABMRCP
Written and medically reviewed by the StethoPrep medical team.