Surgery · Pediatric Surgery

A 10-month-old boy has both testes impalpable in the scrotum; both can be palpated at the superficial inguinal pouch and cannot be brought down to the scrotal base. What is the correct management?

  • A Reassess at 5 years before deciding on surgery
  • B Orchiopexy planned between 6 and 12 months of age, completed before 18 months
  • C Hormonal therapy with hCG injections as first-line definitive treatment
  • D Orchiectomy because malignancy risk makes preservation unjustifiable
Correct answer: B. Orchiopexy planned between 6 and 12 months of age, completed before 18 months

Explanation

Current guidance, reflected in Indian postgraduate teaching, is to perform orchidofunicolysis and orchiopexy between 6 and 12 months, and certainly before 18 months, because germ cell loss begins histologically by this age. Hormonal therapy with hCG gives low success rates and is no longer first-line. Retention preserves the testis because orchiopexy allows easier surveillance for malignancy, which remains elevated even after fixation, and improves fertility potential.

Reference: Bailey and Love's Short Practice of Surgery, 27th ed.

High-yield for: NEET PGINI-CETNExTFMGEUSMLEPLABMRCP

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