Radiology · Musculoskeletal Imaging

A 45-year-old man on long-term corticosteroid therapy for systemic lupus erythematosus presents with progressive right hip pain. Plain radiograph is normal. MRI of the hip shows a T1 hypointense line paralleling the articular surface and a T2 hyperintense line just deep to it. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  • A Transient osteoporosis of the hip
  • B Stress fracture of the femoral neck
  • C Avascular necrosis of the femoral head
  • D Osteoarthritis of the hip
Correct answer: C. Avascular necrosis of the femoral head

Explanation

The double-line sign on MRI, consisting of a T1 hypointense line paralleling the articular surface with a T2 hyperintense line deep to it, is pathognomonic for avascular necrosis of the femoral head. Corticosteroid use is a major risk factor. Transient osteoporosis shows diffuse marrow edema without the double-line sign. Stress fracture would show a fracture line, not this characteristic sign.

Reference: Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease, 10th ed.

High-yield for: NEET PGINI-CETNExTFMGEUSMLEPLABMRCP

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