Psychiatry · Treatment Modalities (Psychopharmacology, Psychotherapy Basics)

A 26-year-old woman with schizophrenia has been mute and immobile for 5 days, with waxy flexibility and refusal to eat. Intravenous lorazepam up to 8 mg per day over 72 hours produced minimal improvement. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

  • A Switch to oral olanzapine
  • B Start intramuscular haloperidol
  • C Add memantine to the current regimen
  • D Proceed with electroconvulsive therapy
Correct answer: D. Proceed with electroconvulsive therapy

Explanation

Catatonia is first treated with benzodiazepines, but cases unresponsive to adequate lorazepam dosing respond well to electroconvulsive therapy, which is the standard next step and is life-saving when catatonia causes dehydration or malnutrition. Antipsychotics such as haloperidol carry a risk of worsening catatonia into neuroleptic malignant syndrome and are avoided until catatonia resolves. Memantine is experimental and not guideline supported.

Reference: Kaplan and Sadock's Synopsis of Psychiatry, 12th ed.

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