Psychiatry · Substance Use Disorders (Alcohol, Opioids, Other Substances)

A 40-year-old chronic alcoholic presents at 48 hours of abstinence with tremors, sweating, hypertension, tachycardia, and visual hallucinations. He is oriented to time and place. CIWA-Ar score is 22. Which is the MOST appropriate treatment?

  • A IV haloperidol for hallucinations
  • B Oral diazepam symptom-triggered protocol
  • C Naltrexone 50 mg daily
  • D Disulfiram 250 mg immediately
Correct answer: B. Oral diazepam symptom-triggered protocol

Explanation

A CIWA-Ar score of 22 indicates moderate-severe alcohol withdrawal requiring treatment. Benzodiazepines (diazepam or lorazepam) are the gold standard for alcohol withdrawal, preventing progression to delirium tremens and seizures. Symptom-triggered dosing (benzodiazepines given when CIWA-Ar >8-10) uses less medication than fixed-dose schedules. Antipsychotics do not prevent seizures. Naltrexone and disulfiram are used for relapse prevention AFTER detoxification, not during acute withdrawal.

Reference: Kaplan & Sadock's Synopsis of Psychiatry, 11th ed.

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