Psychiatry · Schizophrenia and Other Psychotic Disorders

A 34-year-old woman admitted for an acute psychotic episode is found mute, immobile, and resisting passive movement of her limbs. She has not eaten for two days and shows waxy flexibility. Vital signs are stable. What is the immediate next step in management?

  • A Intravenous lorazepam challenge test
  • B Start haloperidol orally
  • C Immediate electroconvulsive therapy without any drug trial
  • D Start clozapine under monitoring
Correct answer: A. Intravenous lorazepam challenge test

Explanation

Catatonia is first treated with a lorazepam challenge, classically 1 to 2 mg intravenous or intramuscular, with dramatic improvement in rigidity, mutism, and posturing within minutes confirming the diagnosis. Antipsychotics such as haloperidol can precipitate or worsen malignant catatonia and neuroleptic malignant syndrome. ECT is reserved for patients who fail benzodiazepines or have life-threatening catatonia, so it is not the immediate first step.

Reference: Kaplan and Sadock's Synopsis of Psychiatry, 12th ed.

High-yield for: NEET PGINI-CETNExTFMGEUSMLEPLABMRCP

Written and medically reviewed by the StethoPrep medical team.

Sponsored

Want to test yourself?

Create a free account for timed mock tests, mistake tracking, and FSRS spaced-repetition revision across 43,000+ MCQs.

Start free → Log in

More Schizophrenia and Other Psychotic Disorders MCQs

See all Schizophrenia and Other Psychotic Disorders MCQs →