In ICD-11, which of the following correctly describes a major conceptual difference from ICD-10 in diagnosing schizophrenia?

• A ICD-11 retains Schneider's first-rank symptoms as a required criterion
• B ICD-11 requires a minimum 1-month duration for schizophrenia
• C ICD-11 requires Criterion A symptoms present for 6 months like DSM-5
• D ICD-11 eliminates the concept of disorganized (hebephrenic) subtype ✓

Explanation

ICD-11 has eliminated the traditional subtypes of schizophrenia (paranoid, hebephrenic, catatonic, undifferentiated, residual) that were present in ICD-10, aligning more closely with DSM-5's approach. ICD-11 retains a 1-month duration requirement (not 6 months like DSM-5). Schneider's first-rank symptoms no longer have special diagnostic weight in ICD-11. The shift to dimensional specifiers (positive, negative, depressive, manic, psychomotor, cognitive) replaces subtype categories.

Reference: Kaplan & Sadock's Synopsis of Psychiatry, 11th ed.

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