Psychiatry · Mood Disorders (Depressive Disorders, Bipolar Disorder)

A 45-year-old woman has recurrent depression treated with sertraline. She develops hypomanic episodes 5 days after starting sertraline. This pattern suggests the underlying diagnosis should be revised to:

  • A Major depressive disorder with anxious distress
  • B Cyclothymic disorder
  • C Bipolar II disorder (or bipolar spectrum)
  • D Borderline personality disorder with mood instability
Correct answer: C. Bipolar II disorder (or bipolar spectrum)

Explanation

Antidepressant-induced hypomania or mania is a diagnostically and therapeutically important finding. DSM-5 states that if a full hypomanic or manic episode emerges during antidepressant treatment (pharmacologically or ECT-induced) and persists beyond the physiological effect of that treatment, it counts toward a diagnosis of bipolar I or II disorder. Unrecognised bipolar spectrum disorder is a common reason for inadequate antidepressant response and cycling. This presentation should prompt transition to a mood stabiliser (lithium, lamotrigine, valproate) rather than escalating antidepressant therapy.

Reference: Kaplan & Sadock's Synopsis of Psychiatry, 11th ed.

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