A 32-year-old woman presents with a 4-day episode of elevated mood, decreased sleep (feeling rested after 3 hours), increased talkativeness, and starting three new business ventures simultaneously. She is fully functional at work and denies any distress. This episode most likely represents:
- A Hypomanic episode — consistent with Bipolar II Disorder ✓
- B Manic episode — requires hospitalisation
- C Cyclothymic disorder — fluctuating sub-threshold mood
- D Mixed features specifier of a major depressive episode
Correct answer: A. Hypomanic episode — consistent with Bipolar II Disorder
Explanation
DSM-5 criteria for hypomania require at least 4 consecutive days (vs ≥7 days or any duration requiring hospitalisation for mania), elevated/expansive/irritable mood plus increased goal-directed activity, without marked functional impairment, psychosis, or hospitalisation. The preserved functioning and 4-day duration point to hypomania. Bipolar II Disorder requires at least one hypomanic and one major depressive episode with no lifetime manic episodes.
Reference: Kaplan & Sadock's Synopsis of Psychiatry, 11th ed.
High-yield for: NEET PGINI-CETNExTFMGEUSMLEPLABMRCP
Written and medically reviewed by the StethoPrep medical team.