Regarding DSM-5 criteria for pedophilic disorder, which statement is CORRECT?
- A The attraction must be exclusively towards boys
- B Acting on the sexual urges is mandatory for the diagnosis, even if there is no distress
- C The individual must be at least 16 years old and at least 5 years older than the prepubescent child ✓
- D The symptoms must have been present for at least 2 years
Correct answer: C. The individual must be at least 16 years old and at least 5 years older than the prepubescent child
Explanation
DSM-5 specifies a minimum age of 16 years for the individual and a minimum five-year age gap relative to the prepubescent child, with recurrent fantasies lasting at least six months. Acting on urges is sufficient but not mandatory; equivalent distress or interpersonal difficulty also satisfies criterion B, which kills option B. Attraction may target boys, girls or both, ruling out option A, and the duration requirement is six months, not two years.
Reference: Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, 5th ed.
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