A 40-year-old woman presents with a 2-year history of consistently low sexual desire, absent sexual fantasies, and lack of interest in sexual activity that causes marked interpersonal difficulty with her partner. She has no depression, is not on hormonal contraception, and thyroid function and prolactin are normal. What is the most appropriate DSM-5 diagnosis?

• A Substance/Medication-Induced Sexual Dysfunction
• B Female Orgasmic Disorder
• C Genito-Pelvic Pain/Penetration Disorder
• D Female Sexual Interest/Arousal Disorder ✓

Explanation

DSM-5 combined the previous diagnoses of Hypoactive Sexual Desire Disorder and Female Sexual Arousal Disorder into Female Sexual Interest/Arousal Disorder due to high comorbidity between desire and arousal problems in women. The diagnosis requires at least three symptoms including absent or reduced interest in sexual activity, reduced erotic thoughts, and reduced sexual excitement during activity, persisting for approximately 6 months and causing significant distress.

Reference: Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, 5th ed.

High-yield for: NEET PGINI-CETNExTFMGEUSMLEPLABMRCP

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