A 50-year-old man with primary hyperaldosteronism (Conn's syndrome) has hypertension and persistent hypokalemia. Which antihypertensive is the first-line agent for this condition?
- A Lisinopril
- B Amiloride
- C Hydrochlorothiazide
- D Spironolactone ✓
Correct answer: D. Spironolactone
Explanation
Spironolactone is a mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist that directly blocks the effects of excess aldosterone, making it the drug of choice for primary hyperaldosteronism. Amiloride blocks epithelial sodium channels but is less effective. Thiazides worsen hypokalemia, and ACE inhibitors do not counteract aldosterone excess.
Reference: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 21st ed.
High-yield for: NEET PGINI-CETNExTFMGEUSMLEPLABMRCP
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