Pharmacology · Antiepileptics and CNS Drugs (Antipsychotics, Antidepressants, Sedatives)

A patient with bipolar disorder starts lamotrigine and develops a mild macular rash after two weeks. There are no mucosal lesions or systemic symptoms. The most appropriate immediate step in management is to:

  • A Continue the drug and add oral antihistamines
  • B Discontinue the drug and avoid rechallenge
  • C Switch immediately to valproate
  • D Increase the dose rapidly to achieve therapeutic levels
Correct answer: B. Discontinue the drug and avoid rechallenge

Explanation

Any rash developing during lamotrigine therapy, even if mild, warrants immediate discontinuation and avoidance of rechallenge because it can progress rapidly to Stevens-Johnson syndrome or toxic epidermal necrolysis. Slow dose titration reduces the risk, but once a rash appears, the drug must be stopped. Rapid dose escalation actually increases the risk of severe rash.

Reference: Katzung and Trevor's Pharmacology, 12th ed.

High-yield for: NEET PGINI-CETNExTFMGEUSMLEPLABMRCP

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