Pharmacology · Antidiabetic Drugs (Oral Hypoglycemics, Insulins)

A 58-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus has an HbA1c of 8.5% despite lifestyle modifications. The physician chooses metformin as first-line therapy. The primary mechanism by which metformin lowers blood glucose is:

  • A Activation of AMP-activated protein kinase (AMPK) reducing hepatic gluconeogenesis
  • B Stimulation of pancreatic beta-cell insulin secretion via SUR1 receptor closure
  • C Inhibition of intestinal alpha-glucosidase delaying carbohydrate absorption
  • D Increasing GLP-1 receptor stimulation by preventing GLP-1 degradation
Correct answer: A. Activation of AMP-activated protein kinase (AMPK) reducing hepatic gluconeogenesis

Explanation

Metformin lowers glucose primarily by activating AMPK in the liver, which suppresses hepatic gluconeogenesis. It does not stimulate insulin secretion, so hypoglycemia is rare. Option B describes sulfonylureas, C describes acarbose, and D describes DPP-4 inhibitors. Harrison and Katzung both describe AMPK activation as the principal mechanism.

Reference: Katzung's Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, 15th ed.

High-yield for: NEET PGINI-CETNExTFMGEUSMLEPLABMRCP

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