Pediatrics · Pediatric Genetic Syndromes and Dysmorphology (Detailed)

A 3-year-old boy presents with recurrent fractures after minor trauma, blue sclerae, and hearing loss. His father had similar features. Which protein is most likely defective?

  • A Type I collagen
  • B Type II collagen
  • C Type III collagen
  • D Type IV collagen
Correct answer: A. Type I collagen

Explanation

This describes osteogenesis imperfecta, most commonly caused by mutations in COL1A1 or COL1A2 genes encoding type I collagen. The triad of recurrent fractures, blue sclerae, and hearing loss is classic for type I OI. The autosomal dominant inheritance pattern (affected father) is consistent. Type II collagen defects cause spondyloepiphyseal dysplasia. Type III collagen defects cause vascular Ehlers-Danlos. Type IV collagen defects cause Alport syndrome.

Reference: Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease, 10th ed.

High-yield for: NEET PGINI-CETNExTFMGEUSMLEPLABMRCP

Written and medically reviewed by the StethoPrep medical team.

Sponsored

Want to test yourself?

Create a free account for timed mock tests, mistake tracking, and FSRS spaced-repetition revision across 43,000+ MCQs.

Start free → Log in

More Pediatric Genetic Syndromes and Dysmorphology (Detailed) MCQs

See all Pediatric Genetic Syndromes and Dysmorphology (Detailed) MCQs →