Pathology · Neoplasia (Classification, Carcinogenesis, Tumor Markers, Paraneoplastic)

A 55-year-old woman has a 3 cm breast mass. Biopsy shows infiltrating ductal carcinoma. Immunohistochemistry reveals: ER−, PR−, HER2−. FISH confirms HER2 non-amplification. The tumor's aggressive behavior compared to hormone-receptor positive subtypes is best explained by:

  • A Predominant BRCA1 germline mutation causing defective homologous recombination with genomic instability
  • B Amplification of VEGF receptors promoting angiogenesis
  • C Loss of E-cadherin function enabling epithelial-mesenchymal transition
  • D Overexpression of BCL-2 inhibiting the intrinsic apoptotic pathway
Correct answer: A. Predominant BRCA1 germline mutation causing defective homologous recombination with genomic instability

Explanation

Triple-negative breast cancer (TNBC) has the highest frequency of BRCA1 germline mutations among breast cancer subtypes. BRCA1 normally participates in homologous recombination repair of double-strand DNA breaks; its loss results in genomic instability, accumulation of mutations, and a basal-like phenotype with high-grade histology and aggressive clinical behavior. While E-cadherin loss drives lobular carcinoma (not ductal), and BCL-2 overexpression is anti-apoptotic, neither explains the specific aggressive biology of TNBC as well as BRCA1-related genomic instability.

Reference: Robbins & Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease, 10th ed.

High-yield for: NEET PGINI-CETNExTFMGEUSMLEPLABMRCP

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