Pathology · Immunopathology (Hypersensitivity, Autoimmunity, Immunodeficiency, Amyloidosis)

A 35-year-old man undergoes cadaveric renal transplant. On day 3 post-transplant, he develops sudden oliguria, graft tenderness, and fever. Biopsy shows dense neutrophilic infiltration of glomeruli and vessels with fibrinoid necrosis but no significant lymphocytic infiltrate. DSA (donor-specific antibodies) are detected at high titer. This rejection is BEST classified as:

  • A Hyperacute rejection mediated by pre-formed anti-HLA antibodies causing complement activation
  • B Acute antibody-mediated rejection (ABMR) with microvascular injury driven by de novo or pre-formed DSA
  • C Acute T-cell mediated (cellular) rejection with tubulitis and interstitial lymphocytic infiltrate
  • D Chronic allograft nephropathy with transplant glomerulopathy
Correct answer: B. Acute antibody-mediated rejection (ABMR) with microvascular injury driven by de novo or pre-formed DSA

Explanation

The presentation on day 3 post-transplant with oliguria, neutrophilic glomerulitis, peritubular capillaritis, fibrinoid vascular necrosis, and high-titer DSA is characteristic of acute antibody-mediated rejection (ABMR). DSA bind donor endothelial HLA antigens, activate complement (C4d deposition in peritubular capillaries is a hallmark), and recruit neutrophils via Fc receptors. Hyperacute rejection (minutes to hours intraoperatively) occurs when pre-formed antibodies are present before transplant — now rare with crossmatch testing. Cellular rejection shows CD4+/CD8+ lymphocytes in tubules (tubulitis) and interstitium, without the neutrophilic vasculitis.

Reference: Robbins & Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease, 10th ed.

High-yield for: NEET PGINI-CETNExTFMGEUSMLEPLABMRCP

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