Pathology · Hematopathology

A 70-year-old woman with known CLL develops sudden worsening anemia with a positive direct Coombs test. Her lymphocyte count was stable at 40,000/µL for 2 years. The most likely pathomechanism of her new anemia is:

  • A Bone marrow infiltration causing erythroid aplasia
  • B Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia from DIC
  • C Cold agglutinin disease mediated by IgM from the neoplastic clone
  • D Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia driven by IgG autoantibodies from the neoplastic clone
Correct answer: D. Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia driven by IgG autoantibodies from the neoplastic clone

Explanation

CLL is the hematologic malignancy most commonly associated with warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia (WAIHA), in which the neoplastic B-cell clone produces IgG autoantibodies directed against RBC surface antigens (typically Rh antigens). The direct Coombs test (DAT) detects IgG and/or complement on the RBC surface. Cold agglutinin disease (IgM-mediated) is more characteristic of lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma/Waldenström macroglobulinemia. DIC-associated microangiopathy would show schistocytes and coagulation abnormalities.

Reference: Robbins & Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease, 10th ed.

High-yield for: NEET PGINI-CETNExTFMGEUSMLEPLABMRCP

Written and medically reviewed by the StethoPrep medical team.

Sponsored

Want to test yourself?

Create a free account for timed mock tests, mistake tracking, and FSRS spaced-repetition revision across 23,000+ MCQs.

Start free → Log in

More Hematopathology MCQs

See all Hematopathology MCQs →